Notes

I know that questions about the placement of 'only', are often asked here; accordingly, I searched for an answer to my question before posting it. Question Where are focusing adverbs placed relative to prepositions? For example, For his presentation, he needed to talk only about tomatoes. For his presentation, he needed to talk about only tomatoes. My Attempt to Answer the Question In both examples, it seems to me that 'only' is placed close enough to what it is intended to modify (the topic of the subject's discourse: tomatoes) that I cannot see any justifiable misinterpretations. One of the examples sounds better to me, but at this point in my studies, I am more interested in what the traditional rules of grammar require, than in how the wordings sound.

I often hear the phrase 'speak to' used as a verb. For example, "This event speaks to the need for good communication" or "Samantha, can you please speak to these dot points?" It seems appropriate for a casual or colloquial scenario. The term 'address' can also be used but I feel this often implies the original material was a problem or issue. Whereas, 'Speaks to' can be used to offer a reflection or explanation of the original material. Is there a more formal or professional verb that could also be used in this instance?

Is (1) correct, or must it be written as (2)? John told me yesterday that this contract will not be renewed when it ends next month. John told me yesterday that this contract would not be renewed. It would be ending next month.

Where does the period go when using parentheses? I have never seen this particular issue addressed; I looked around and couldn't see anything that specifically addresses this. (Is there anything?) In a sentence in which we have this scenario: quotation marks, period and closing parenthesis, what goes where? Any of these are possibilities: I love Diablo Cody (Oscar-winning writer of 'Juno.') I love Diablo Cody (Oscar-winning writer of 'Juno).' I love Diablo Cody (Oscar-winning writer of 'Juno'). I know I could use a comma instead of parentheses, but what if I wanted to use parentheses? There has to be a way to do it correctly.

Washington Post November 29 issue reports Pope Francis has been encouraging Vatican’s charity activity under the headline: Pope ramps up charity office to be near poor, sick . It begins with the following sentence: “Pope Francis has ramped up the Vatican’s charity work, sending his chief alms-giver and a contingent of Swiss guards onto the streets of Rome at night to do what he usually can’t do: comfort the poor and the homeless.” http://www.washingtonpost.com/national/on-faith/pope-ramps-up-charity-office-to-be-near-poor-sick/2013/11/29/ac9cd9a6-58d0-11e3-bdbf-097ab2a3dc2b_story.html?tid=pm_pop&wpisrc=nl_most Is it common to spare “the” or “people” in front, or after “poor” and “sick” like this in journalism English? To me you can not save much space by sparing 'the,' and ‘to be near poor, sick” sounds like “feel like being poor and sick. Answer Here are some relevant portions that might help from an educational article about writing headlines: http://www.uncp.edu/home/ac...

I love using "cacamayme" in conversations when I really want to emphasize the "crazy" I am talking about. I also love the Urban Dictionary 's slang definition: 100% grade A Bologna. Does anyone know where this word comes from, or how many different ways it can be spelled? Edit - It looks as though the spelling I am using is Yiddish — here is a link . Answer The more common spelling is Cockamamie , which provides some likely suspects. Etymology Online and World Wide Words suggest that it's a jumbled and easier-to-pronounce version of the French décalcomanie , also source of the English decal . Apparently decals were popular with children in New York City in the 1920s or '30s, where they came with candy and gum. How exactly cockamamie got its current meaning isn't entirely clear, though it likely relates to the frivolousness of these decals.

I'm a native English speaker (from Ireland) and to this day I'd hesitate in saying "wife-beater" when referring to a sleeveless shirt. It seems to be much more common in the U.S. Where did this term come from and why? Another answer here gave conjecture that apparently it's from how people are dressed as they are arrested on the TV show "Cops" and/or men who commit domestic violence, but I find that really unconvincing to lead to such widespread usage while also not maintaining the negative connotation. And how is it so commonly accepted without implying the more literal meaning? I just don't understand how it became natural usage and something people ultimately say without needing to clarify or lose a straight face. Answer Three 1970s sources show that literal wife-beaters were already associated with wearing (just) undershirts by then. Wife Beating: The Silent Crisis (1977) says: Conventional wisdom depicts the wife beater as a lower class, beer...