The Mexican Cession of 1848 was taken after the Mexican War. James K. Polk, an expansionist Democrat, took advantage of a border dispute between Mexico and Texas that came after Texas's war of independence. Under the Treaty of San Jacinto, both Mexico and Texas claimed the land between the Rio and Nuecces Rivers. When Polk sent General Zachary Taylor to the disputed region and Mexico predictably fired upon them as trespassers, Polk had the reason to go to war. The war went disastrously for Mexico due to logistical reasons and its inefficient army. The people of California revolted from Mexico and became the Bear Flag republic. Under the Treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo that ended the war in 1848, Mexico ceded all of its land north of the Rio Grande. In order for America to retain its perceived moral high ground, treaty negotiator Nicholas Trist offered $15 million to the Mexican government. The Mexican Cession and the ensuing Gadsden Purchase were all part of America's Manifest Destiny, in which many Americans believed that they were destined to rule the North American continent.
Does anybody know the etymology of the phrase "sweet dreams"? I tried googling but did not find anything satisfying. Is this a relatively new phrase of the modern world or has this been in use for some time? I think it's the latter one. Answer The OED has the interjection as "a farewell to someone going to bed" from the 20th century: 1908 Sears Roebuck Catal. 198/1 Tenor Solos..Good Bye, Sweet Dreams, Good Bye. But it goes back until at least the 19th and possibly 18th centuries. John Wolcot, writing under the pseudonym of Peter Pindar, used it in his poem "Orson and Ellen; A Legendary Tale" published in 1801: Also from 1801 in The infernal Quixote (Page 287) by Charles Lucas: In the March 1776 of The Universal Magazine was published "The Serenade. A Pastoral Tale. From the German of Gesner" , where the shepherd Daphnis watches over his beloved as she sleeps and sings: The same tale appears in 1776's as Idyl XI, " Daphnis ...
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