Shakespeare presents Antonio as a gracious friend who willingly risks his life to fund Bassanio's trip to Belmont so that he can try to marry Portia. Shylock is viewed as a vindictive Jew who seeks revenge from Antonio for treating him unfairly and ridiculing his practice of usury. Shylock is also greedy, and his love of money is evident throughout the play. He laments about Jessica stealing his money and jewels when she elopes with Lorenzo. Although Antonio is viewed as a magnanimous individual, he is prejudiced towards Shylock and causes him much grief. However, Shylock refuses to show mercy to Antonio, and Antonio is willing to sacrifice his life for his friend. Antonio's willingness to die for Bassanio is why Antonio is ultimately a more moral individual and better person than Shylock.
Does anybody know the etymology of the phrase "sweet dreams"? I tried googling but did not find anything satisfying. Is this a relatively new phrase of the modern world or has this been in use for some time? I think it's the latter one. Answer The OED has the interjection as "a farewell to someone going to bed" from the 20th century: 1908 Sears Roebuck Catal. 198/1 Tenor Solos..Good Bye, Sweet Dreams, Good Bye. But it goes back until at least the 19th and possibly 18th centuries. John Wolcot, writing under the pseudonym of Peter Pindar, used it in his poem "Orson and Ellen; A Legendary Tale" published in 1801: Also from 1801 in The infernal Quixote (Page 287) by Charles Lucas: In the March 1776 of The Universal Magazine was published "The Serenade. A Pastoral Tale. From the German of Gesner" , where the shepherd Daphnis watches over his beloved as she sleeps and sings: The same tale appears in 1776's as Idyl XI, " Daphnis ...
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