According to the Captain with whom King Duncan speaks in Act 1, Scene 2, Macbeth bravely confronts the traitor, Macdonwald, stabbing him in the navel and ripping him open all the way up to his jaw. After Macbeth "unseamed" his foe, Macbeth placed Macdonwald's head on a spike on the battlements so that all can see what becomes of a traitor (1.2.24). However, the Captain continues, Macbeth and Banquo were not done fighting yet: after the battle against Macdonwald's rebel forces was over, the rebels having fled the scene, the king of Norway saw his opportunity to attack when the loyal Scottish forces were tired and weakened. Thus, the king ordered a new attack, with fresh soldiers, on Macbeth's army. Although Macbeth and Banquo were clearly worried, they were victorious in this battle as well.
Does anybody know the etymology of the phrase "sweet dreams"? I tried googling but did not find anything satisfying. Is this a relatively new phrase of the modern world or has this been in use for some time? I think it's the latter one. Answer The OED has the interjection as "a farewell to someone going to bed" from the 20th century: 1908 Sears Roebuck Catal. 198/1 Tenor Solos..Good Bye, Sweet Dreams, Good Bye. But it goes back until at least the 19th and possibly 18th centuries. John Wolcot, writing under the pseudonym of Peter Pindar, used it in his poem "Orson and Ellen; A Legendary Tale" published in 1801: Also from 1801 in The infernal Quixote (Page 287) by Charles Lucas: In the March 1776 of The Universal Magazine was published "The Serenade. A Pastoral Tale. From the German of Gesner" , where the shepherd Daphnis watches over his beloved as she sleeps and sings: The same tale appears in 1776's as Idyl XI, " Daphnis ...
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