The NOAD reports the following notes about should and would:
The traditional rule is that should is used with first person pronouns (I and we), as in I said I should be late, and would is used with second and third persons (you, he, she, it, they), as in you didn't say you would be late. In practice, however, would is normally used instead of should in reported speech and conditional clauses: I said I would be late; if we had known, we would have invited her.
I thought that should and would really had a slightly different meaning. Am I wrong?
Answer
Smirkingman's answer is right but unhelpful. There are historically two different uses of "should", and kiamaluno is asking about the other one.
In older works you will find writers generally use "I/we should" where today most of us would write (and say) "I/we would", i.e. without any sense of obligation.
This is separate from the obligatory sense that smirkingman describes, and has no meaning different from "would".
There is a parallel with "shall" and "will" (and historically, "should" and "would" were the past tense of these): "Shall" has a sense of command - little used in speech today, but very much alive in legal documents and technical specifications; but for speakers of many varieties of English it is quite normal to say "I shall" as an alternative to "I will". For me at least "Shall I?" is the normal question form: I would only say "Will I?" when asking for a prediction.
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