In simplest terms, Oswald demonstrates extraordinarily rude behavior toward King Lear. A pronounced example of this rudeness occurs when Oswald refuses to acknowledge Lear's summons and questions about his daughter in Act 1, Scene 4. A servant's refusal to acknowledge a king's request would have been the height of insubordination, making Oswald's actions very rude indeed. However, he's not just being rude to be cruel; instead, he's acting on Goneril's orders to be rude in order to force a confrontation between herself and her father. Thus, Oswald's actions play a small but important part in the sisters' plans to cast out their father and and gain power over his realms. By this point in the play, they've already received territory from their father by flattering him. As such, all they need to do to rid themselves of Lear is to find a reason to start a quarrel and toss him out into the wilderness. Oswald's rudeness plays a key role in this endeavor.
Does anybody know the etymology of the phrase "sweet dreams"? I tried googling but did not find anything satisfying. Is this a relatively new phrase of the modern world or has this been in use for some time? I think it's the latter one. Answer The OED has the interjection as "a farewell to someone going to bed" from the 20th century: 1908 Sears Roebuck Catal. 198/1 Tenor Solos..Good Bye, Sweet Dreams, Good Bye. But it goes back until at least the 19th and possibly 18th centuries. John Wolcot, writing under the pseudonym of Peter Pindar, used it in his poem "Orson and Ellen; A Legendary Tale" published in 1801: Also from 1801 in The infernal Quixote (Page 287) by Charles Lucas: In the March 1776 of The Universal Magazine was published "The Serenade. A Pastoral Tale. From the German of Gesner" , where the shepherd Daphnis watches over his beloved as she sleeps and sings: The same tale appears in 1776's as Idyl XI, " Daphnis ...
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