After the night of the party at the Capulets' house and Romeo and Juliet's faithful vows of love to one another in the balcony scene, Romeo goes to Friar Lawrence's cell to acquaint his friend and spiritual guide of the developments in his love life and to make marriage arrangements for later that day. When the Friar chastises Romeo for switching his object of love so quickly, Romeo tells Friar Lawrence, "Her I love now / Doth grace for grace and love for love allow. / The other did not so" (II.3.85-87). In other words, one of the biggest ways in which Romeo's love for Juliet differs from his love for Rosaline is that Juliet actually returns his affections, while Rosaline did not. Romeo also says that "[her heart] is set on [his], / And all combined, save what [the Friar] must combine / By holy marriage" (II.3.63-65). Romeo feels he and Juliet are basically already combined in every way that they can be without being married; it only remains for Friar Lawrence to marry them so their commitment can be official.
Does anybody know the etymology of the phrase "sweet dreams"? I tried googling but did not find anything satisfying. Is this a relatively new phrase of the modern world or has this been in use for some time? I think it's the latter one. Answer The OED has the interjection as "a farewell to someone going to bed" from the 20th century: 1908 Sears Roebuck Catal. 198/1 Tenor Solos..Good Bye, Sweet Dreams, Good Bye. But it goes back until at least the 19th and possibly 18th centuries. John Wolcot, writing under the pseudonym of Peter Pindar, used it in his poem "Orson and Ellen; A Legendary Tale" published in 1801: Also from 1801 in The infernal Quixote (Page 287) by Charles Lucas: In the March 1776 of The Universal Magazine was published "The Serenade. A Pastoral Tale. From the German of Gesner" , where the shepherd Daphnis watches over his beloved as she sleeps and sings: The same tale appears in 1776's as Idyl XI, " Daphnis ...
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