I'm not really clear on the context in which this question is being asked, since it is listed under "Business," which presupposes a capitalistic system of some sort, I would think. If consumers do not own private property, they are far less likely to want to consume many goods and services, and they have no assets upon which they can draw if need be. If I own a house, I am more likely to buy carpeting and paint to fix it up and buy a few trees and perennials to plant. If I rent, I have no stake in the place I live, and I am not going to acquire a significant number of goods and services to improve the property. If I own a house, I build equity in it, upon which I can borrow, to remodel, to send a child to college, or to finance my senior years. It is difficult to conceptualize an economy in which there are businesses and no one is permitted to own private property.
Does anybody know the etymology of the phrase "sweet dreams"? I tried googling but did not find anything satisfying. Is this a relatively new phrase of the modern world or has this been in use for some time? I think it's the latter one. Answer The OED has the interjection as "a farewell to someone going to bed" from the 20th century: 1908 Sears Roebuck Catal. 198/1 Tenor Solos..Good Bye, Sweet Dreams, Good Bye. But it goes back until at least the 19th and possibly 18th centuries. John Wolcot, writing under the pseudonym of Peter Pindar, used it in his poem "Orson and Ellen; A Legendary Tale" published in 1801: Also from 1801 in The infernal Quixote (Page 287) by Charles Lucas: In the March 1776 of The Universal Magazine was published "The Serenade. A Pastoral Tale. From the German of Gesner" , where the shepherd Daphnis watches over his beloved as she sleeps and sings: The same tale appears in 1776's as Idyl XI, " Daphnis ...
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