Danforth checks Proctor's story about Abigail—that she has only accused his wife, Elizabeth, because she wishes to remove Elizabeth from the picture by having her hanged for witchcraft—by asking that Elizabeth be brought in to confirm that she really did learn of an affair between Abigail and John and dismiss Abigail for this reason. In order to compel Danforth to believe what he says about Abigail, John has confessed to the magistrate that he and Abigail had a sexual relationship and that this is the reason Abigail wants his wife convicted. Danforth asks for Elizabeth to account for her dismissal of Abigail without being able to consult her husband before she answers his questions; wanting to protect John's reputation, she lies— something John has sworn she will never do—and claims only that Abigail displeased her and this was the only reason for her dismissal.
Does anybody know the etymology of the phrase "sweet dreams"? I tried googling but did not find anything satisfying. Is this a relatively new phrase of the modern world or has this been in use for some time? I think it's the latter one. Answer The OED has the interjection as "a farewell to someone going to bed" from the 20th century: 1908 Sears Roebuck Catal. 198/1 Tenor Solos..Good Bye, Sweet Dreams, Good Bye. But it goes back until at least the 19th and possibly 18th centuries. John Wolcot, writing under the pseudonym of Peter Pindar, used it in his poem "Orson and Ellen; A Legendary Tale" published in 1801: Also from 1801 in The infernal Quixote (Page 287) by Charles Lucas: In the March 1776 of The Universal Magazine was published "The Serenade. A Pastoral Tale. From the German of Gesner" , where the shepherd Daphnis watches over his beloved as she sleeps and sings: The same tale appears in 1776's as Idyl XI, " Daphnis ...
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