The only simile in Act II, Scene 1 is found when Macbeth describes his thoughts as he is about to murder Duncan. He says that during the night, and especially that night, witches celebrate, "nature seems dead," and murder "moves like a ghost" toward its target. This qualifies as a simile because Shakespeare uses the word "like," and a simile makes use of the words "like" or "as." Shakespeare uses this simile, and the soliloquy in general, to paint a sinister portrait of Macbeth's state of mind. Having vacillated about the murder for some time, he is now committed to the act. He has just seen a vision of the dagger before him, and he interprets it as an omen that "marshals't" him the way he was already going. But by describing himself as "murder," he depersonalizes the act of killing the king, acting as if he is simply another malevolent force, not a human being who is making a conscious decision to kill another human being.
Does anybody know the etymology of the phrase "sweet dreams"? I tried googling but did not find anything satisfying. Is this a relatively new phrase of the modern world or has this been in use for some time? I think it's the latter one. Answer The OED has the interjection as "a farewell to someone going to bed" from the 20th century: 1908 Sears Roebuck Catal. 198/1 Tenor Solos..Good Bye, Sweet Dreams, Good Bye. But it goes back until at least the 19th and possibly 18th centuries. John Wolcot, writing under the pseudonym of Peter Pindar, used it in his poem "Orson and Ellen; A Legendary Tale" published in 1801: Also from 1801 in The infernal Quixote (Page 287) by Charles Lucas: In the March 1776 of The Universal Magazine was published "The Serenade. A Pastoral Tale. From the German of Gesner" , where the shepherd Daphnis watches over his beloved as she sleeps and sings: The same tale appears in 1776's as Idyl XI, " Daphnis ...
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