William Shakespeare is famous for mainly four reasons. First, he was a famous “entertainer” is his lifetime, providing dozens of dramatic productions, both financially rewarding and “popular” in the sense that the audiences of all social classes spread the word about his plays. Second, he worked in the Elizabethan age, which was a time when the English language was growing quickly and spreading geographically. Consequently, Shakespeare was able to add hundreds of words and phrases to the English language, additions that were repeated for centuries, even today. Third, his plays enjoyed a long life throughout history, especially in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries. So his works were studied and enjoyed by many generations. Finally, his works now act as a kind of historical picture book of Elizabethan times and social traditions (largely due to centuries of Shakespearean scholarship); every work of his contains character portraits of persons in that era – kings and queens, the servant class, even villains. So his fame is reflected in his biography.
Does anybody know the etymology of the phrase "sweet dreams"? I tried googling but did not find anything satisfying. Is this a relatively new phrase of the modern world or has this been in use for some time? I think it's the latter one. Answer The OED has the interjection as "a farewell to someone going to bed" from the 20th century: 1908 Sears Roebuck Catal. 198/1 Tenor Solos..Good Bye, Sweet Dreams, Good Bye. But it goes back until at least the 19th and possibly 18th centuries. John Wolcot, writing under the pseudonym of Peter Pindar, used it in his poem "Orson and Ellen; A Legendary Tale" published in 1801: Also from 1801 in The infernal Quixote (Page 287) by Charles Lucas: In the March 1776 of The Universal Magazine was published "The Serenade. A Pastoral Tale. From the German of Gesner" , where the shepherd Daphnis watches over his beloved as she sleeps and sings: The same tale appears in 1776's as Idyl XI, " Daphnis ...
Comments
Post a Comment