apostrophe - Odd possessive form of a proper name: Why does Dryden write “Lord Nonsuch his” instead of “Lord Nonsuch’s” but “Bibber’s” instead of “Bibber his”?

While researching a question posed on EL&U, I came across this list of the characters in John Dryden’s The Wild Gallant (1663), from a 1735 collection of Dryden’s works:

DRAMATIS PERSONAE.

MEN.

Lord NONSUCH, an old rich humorous Lord.

...

BIBBER, a Taylor.

SETSTONE, a Jeweller.

WOMEN.

Lady CONSTANCE, Lord Nonsuch his Daughter.

Madam ISABELLA, her Cousin.

Mrs. BIBBER, the Taylor’s Wife.

I was struck by the fact that Mrs. Bibber is identified as “the Taylor’s Wife” while Lady Constance is described as “Lord Nonsuch his Daughter.” The chief difference that I see between the two is that “a Taylor” is a common noun (for the occupation of tailor), whereas “Lord Nonsuch” is a proper name.

In Act 1 Scene 1 of the play, a character named Failer repeats the formulation in a conversation with his fellow hanger-on Burr:

Failer. I gad we two have a constant Revenue out of him [Sir Timorous] : He would now be admitted Suitor to my Lady Constance Nonsuch, my Lord Nonsuch his Daughter ; our Neighbour here in Fleetstreet.

But less than a page later, this stage direction appears:

Enter Loveby and Boy ; followed by Frances, Bibber’s Wife.

Since Bibber is the tailor’s last name, it appears that Dryden is handling the two proper names by entirely different rules. Elsewhere in the play, Dryden has the character Loveby say “Call me at my Lord Nonsuch his house, and I’ll go with you,” and somewhat later he has some bailiffs say “We arrest you, Sir, at my Lord Nonsuch his Suit.” In contrast, Dryden has various characters refer to "Will Bibber's humour," "Madam Bibber's name," and "Mr. Bibber's name."

My question is, why does Dryden use these different forms to express a possessive: “Lord Nonsuch his” versus “Bibber’s”? Is “Lord Nonsuch his” a survival of an antiquated form that had died out by Dryden’s time except with regard to persons of eminence, or was it never common except in certain particular circumstances, or does some other circumstance explain the difference in treatment?

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I am aware of a book from 1576 by George Pettie titled A Petite Pallace of Pettie his Pleasure, contayning many pretie Hystories by him, set foorth in comely Colours, and most delightfully discoursed, where "Pettie his Pleasure" seems equivalent to "Pettie's Pleasure."

And Robert Dodsley, Theatrical Records: or, An Account of English Dramatic Authors and Their Works (1756) has this item among the entries for Shakespeare:

The whole Contentione betweene the two famouse Houses of Lancastre and Yorke, wythe the Tragical End of the good Duke Humphrey, Richarde Duke of Yorke and Henrie the 6th. In two Partes.

These two Plays are printed without a Date, but we are assured they must be acted about this Time ; for at the End of Romeo and Juliet, printed for Andrew Wise in 1597, is the following Advertisement. At the Shoppe of Andrew Wyse, Mr. William Shakespeare his Henrie the 6th. in two Parts, may be boughte. The 3d Part is printed in 1600, but we make no Doubt that it was printed before that Date, tho' the Edition is not in our Possession.

But here again the wording “Shakespeare his Henrie the 6th" is old (from 1597). I also note that editions of Dryden’s works from as early as 1808 change “Lord Nonsuch his” to “Lord Nonsuch’s”).

And likewise from The Private Diary of Mr. John Dee (1842), an entry dated December 12, 1587, lists several books burned on a table, including these:

the copy of the man of Badwise Conclusions for the Transmution of metalls ; and 40 leaves in 4°, intitled, Extractiones Dunstani, which he himself extracted and noted out of Dunstan his boke, and the very boke of Dunstan was but cast on the bed hard by from the table.

So "Pettie his Pleasure," “Shakespeare his Henrie the 6th," and "Dunstan his boke" were all used in the sixteenth century. But I can't explain from these instances the differential treatment in 1663 of "Lord Nonsuch his daughter" and "Bibber's wife."