The first section of the Declaration of Independence essentially stated the purpose of government. Borrowing heavily from John Locke's Second Treatise on Civil Government (1689), the document laid out what is often called the "social contract" theory of government. Men are created equal, the Declaration says, and are endowed with "certain unalienable rights." These rights include "life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness," and the purpose of government is to protect and preserve these rights. When governments fail to do so, or become "destructive" of these rights, then it is the right of the people to "alter or abolish it." The Declaration went on to give a host of examples of the ways in which King George III had, in fact, acted in violation of these rights, a "long train of abuses," that, according to the revolutionaries, justified revolution and colonial independence from Great Britain. In short, the British government had violated the rights of the colonists, and this gave them the right to rebel, declare independence, and create a government that would protect their rights.
Does anybody know the etymology of the phrase "sweet dreams"? I tried googling but did not find anything satisfying. Is this a relatively new phrase of the modern world or has this been in use for some time? I think it's the latter one. Answer The OED has the interjection as "a farewell to someone going to bed" from the 20th century: 1908 Sears Roebuck Catal. 198/1 Tenor Solos..Good Bye, Sweet Dreams, Good Bye. But it goes back until at least the 19th and possibly 18th centuries. John Wolcot, writing under the pseudonym of Peter Pindar, used it in his poem "Orson and Ellen; A Legendary Tale" published in 1801: Also from 1801 in The infernal Quixote (Page 287) by Charles Lucas: In the March 1776 of The Universal Magazine was published "The Serenade. A Pastoral Tale. From the German of Gesner" , where the shepherd Daphnis watches over his beloved as she sleeps and sings: The same tale appears in 1776's as Idyl XI, " Daphnis ...
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