At the beginning of Act II, Elizabeth Proctor wants her husband, John, to go to Salem to tell the courts what Abigail Williams, his former lover and the chief accuser in these trials, told him. When they were alone momentarily during Act I, in Reverend Parris's house, Abigail told John that Betty was not bewitched, that the girls were just dancing in the forest and Betty got scared when her father jumped out of the trees. Now, in Act II, people are being legally charged with the crime of witchcraft, while the girls make more accusations, and some of the accused are actually confessing in order to keep their necks from the noose. Elizabeth wants John to tell the court what Abigail told him because it might help to prove that Abigail and the other girls are lying now, and then the accusations and trials could stop.
Does anybody know the etymology of the phrase "sweet dreams"? I tried googling but did not find anything satisfying. Is this a relatively new phrase of the modern world or has this been in use for some time? I think it's the latter one. Answer The OED has the interjection as "a farewell to someone going to bed" from the 20th century: 1908 Sears Roebuck Catal. 198/1 Tenor Solos..Good Bye, Sweet Dreams, Good Bye. But it goes back until at least the 19th and possibly 18th centuries. John Wolcot, writing under the pseudonym of Peter Pindar, used it in his poem "Orson and Ellen; A Legendary Tale" published in 1801: Also from 1801 in The infernal Quixote (Page 287) by Charles Lucas: In the March 1776 of The Universal Magazine was published "The Serenade. A Pastoral Tale. From the German of Gesner" , where the shepherd Daphnis watches over his beloved as she sleeps and sings: The same tale appears in 1776's as Idyl XI, " Daphnis ...
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