Penelope must contend with her fear that she is being duped by someone who is not actually her husband. After all, Odysseus has been gone for twenty years, and he would likely look very different after such a length of time; he would have gone from being a young man to a middle-aged one. When he arrives at their home, claiming to be himself, he is able to string his bow and shoot an arrow through a row of axe handles, but still Penelope doubts his identity. She issues an additional test; she tells a servant to remove the bed she shared with Odysseus and place it in another room so that he can sleep in it. The real Odysseus would know that this is impossible because he had carved their bed into the trunk of a tree that grew up through their house. When Odysseus becomes angry, insisting that such a thing would not be possible, she knows that it is, indeed, him, because no one else knows the details concerning the bed.
Does anybody know the etymology of the phrase "sweet dreams"? I tried googling but did not find anything satisfying. Is this a relatively new phrase of the modern world or has this been in use for some time? I think it's the latter one. Answer The OED has the interjection as "a farewell to someone going to bed" from the 20th century: 1908 Sears Roebuck Catal. 198/1 Tenor Solos..Good Bye, Sweet Dreams, Good Bye. But it goes back until at least the 19th and possibly 18th centuries. John Wolcot, writing under the pseudonym of Peter Pindar, used it in his poem "Orson and Ellen; A Legendary Tale" published in 1801: Also from 1801 in The infernal Quixote (Page 287) by Charles Lucas: In the March 1776 of The Universal Magazine was published "The Serenade. A Pastoral Tale. From the German of Gesner" , where the shepherd Daphnis watches over his beloved as she sleeps and sings: The same tale appears in 1776's as Idyl XI, " Daphnis ...
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