Tybalt is just a young man like Romeo, but he has a belligerent disposition and an inflated opinion of his importance in the Capulet family. He is angry at Romeo for at least two reasons. The first one is that he feels personally offended by the way Romeo and his friends crashed the big Capulet party. Going back to the party in Act 1, Scene 3, Tybalt is threatening violence right there in the midst of the festivities when he is severely reprimanded and humiliated by his uncle Lord Capulet, who calls him "goodman boy" and "a saucy boy." The second reason why Tybalt is so angry at Romeo is that he is still stinging from the rebuke he received from his uncle. He blames Romeo for this tongue-lashing as well. This may be irrational, but it is not atypical of human nature.
Does anybody know the etymology of the phrase "sweet dreams"? I tried googling but did not find anything satisfying. Is this a relatively new phrase of the modern world or has this been in use for some time? I think it's the latter one. Answer The OED has the interjection as "a farewell to someone going to bed" from the 20th century: 1908 Sears Roebuck Catal. 198/1 Tenor Solos..Good Bye, Sweet Dreams, Good Bye. But it goes back until at least the 19th and possibly 18th centuries. John Wolcot, writing under the pseudonym of Peter Pindar, used it in his poem "Orson and Ellen; A Legendary Tale" published in 1801: Also from 1801 in The infernal Quixote (Page 287) by Charles Lucas: In the March 1776 of The Universal Magazine was published "The Serenade. A Pastoral Tale. From the German of Gesner" , where the shepherd Daphnis watches over his beloved as she sleeps and sings: The same tale appears in 1776's as Idyl XI, " Daphnis ...
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