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grammar - Since when a double negative as an intensifier was considered as non-standard and why?


In present-day English, a double negative as an intensifier is regarded as non-standard. For example I don't think that "I can't get no satisfaction" is considered as standard English. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=HoxRFOr_sQ0


However, here's from Hamlet Act 1, Scene 2.



O, most wicked speed, to post


With such dexterity to incestuous sheets!


It is not, nor it cannot come to good;


But break my heart,--for I must hold my tongue!



Notice that "nor it cannot come to good" is a double negative. And Hamlet is the Prince of Denmark who is supposed to be well-educated.


Here's from the Abbot's:



Many irregularities may be explained by the desire of emphasis which suggests repetition, even where repetition, as in the case of a negative, neutralizes the original phrase: ... This idiom is a very natural one, and quite common in E.E. (E. A. Abbott, A Shakespearean Grammar, Item 406, p.295) https://archive.org/details/shakespeariangra034962mbp



So here's my question.



Since when a double negative as an intensifier was considered as non-standard and why?





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